Here, for example, is what Richard Cordaux et al. have to say, in their paper, Mitochondrial DNA analysis reveals diverse histories of tribal populations from India, 2003. And by the way, Mark Stoneking, one of the leading figures of population genetics, is one of the co-authors:
In summary, although the data support a recent India– Australia connection, we could not find in Indian tribals any unquestionable genetic signature of the ~60,000 year old migration from Africa to Sahul following the postulated southern route. A possible explanation would be that such migration never occurred along that route. Alternatively, the early migrants from Africa may have made their way to Sahul following the southern route without settling in India. Another possibility, which is probably the most reasonable one, is that in India the genetic traces of early migrations along the southern route were erased by the subsequent migrations which shaped the present-day mtDNA gene pool of India (p. 262 -- my emphasis).Whether the subsequent migrations came in the direct aftermath of the bottleneck I think I'm seeing, or at a much later time, is not clear. What is clear is that, at least as far as these authors are concerned, there is a genetic gap, at exactly the same place we find all the other gaps.
[Added at 3:52 PM: Here is what Kivisild et al had to say on this matter, in 1999:
Both western and eastern Eurasian-specific mtDNA haplogroups can be found in India together with strictly Indian-specific ones. However, in India the structure of the haplogroups shared either with western or eastern Eurasian populations is profoundly different. This indicates a local independent development over a very long time period ("The Place of the Indian mtDNA Variants in the Global Network of Maternal Lineages and the Peopling of the Old World," p. 14 -- emphasis mine).]
Nevertheless, Maju could still be right in questioning my interpretation of the gap, because it's possible that it's the result of more recent historical developments having little or nothing to do with the original Out of Africa migration. And it may or may not be supported by the genetic evidence, depending on whose research you prefer to follow. I want to consider all possibilities and to make clear that I'm not in love with the interpretation I've been presenting -- for me it seems like the simplest and most reasonable interpretation, but I'll be happy to accept any explanation that makes sense, even if the events producing the gap can be traced to some other event(s), such as, possibly, the LGM (latest glacial maximum), or migrations dating to the Neolithic, or even relatively modern events due to colonialism. If Maju or anyone else would like to put together a coherent alternative explanation for all these gaps, I invite them to do so as a comment, and I'll bring it over here into the posts. What I will not accept is a dismissal or denial that any such gap exists. At the risk of repeating myself: the gap is there -- it is real -- it must be accounted for.